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To: ansel12
Why permanent? Nothing was written in stone by that 1936 election, though it might seem that way to you now. History didn't have to unroll as it did. In the 40s African-Americans were equally divided in identifying with the two parties, though they gave more votes to FDR and his Democrat successors. Still, Eisenhower and Nixon pulled in over a third of Black voters, so there was room for events to develop differently than they did.

I didn't claim to give a reason why Jews vote Democrat. That would entail a very long discussion. My point was just that the writer somehow assumed that Jews would be so turned off by Obama that they'd vote against him. But people who have been voting for Democrats for decades, people who voted for Mondale, Dukakis, Kerry and other Democrats down through the years aren't going to look at Obama as the author does. Why is that somehow controversial? And do we have to add Blacks and Jews to Catholics and Mormons on your list?

105 posted on 05/21/2014 1:22:16 PM PDT by x
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To: x
The Jewish vote is the way it is and has been for far longer than a 100 years, because they are liberals.

You can’t ignore the facts about blacks for instance, until 1932, they always voted republican, in 1936 they made an instant, and permanent switch.

In 1932 the black vote being republican, gave the democrats the unsurprising 23%, and in 1936, they made the instant and permanent switch, suddenly going 71% democrat, and staying there.

Yep, they sure did give more votes to the democrats, that is what I said, the fact that it took a few years for party registration to better reflect that instant switch of parties, is meaningless.

Up to 1932, blacks always voted republican, in 1932 FDR got 23% of the black vote, and then the instant switch was made in 1936.
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106 posted on 05/21/2014 1:37:47 PM PDT by ansel12 ((Ted Cruz and Mike Lee-both of whom sit on the Senate Judiciary Comm as Ginsberg's importance fades)
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