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To: OneWingedShark
“Not applicable to sovereign states as it presupposes that the state is “Territory or other Property belonging to the United States”.”

The State ratified the agreement or Engagement whereby the State delegated its sovereign powers enumerated in the Constitution to a perpetual Union subject to the “consent of the Congress assembled.” This delegation of the State's powers included the power to alienate territories of the State with the consent of Congress and the State by treaties with foreign states and a variety of other powers not limited “To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions.” To secede a State must obtain the consent of Congress assembled and the other States of the Union with whom there is a joinder in a mutual and perpetual Union to recover the sovereign powers previously delegated to the perpetual Union of the United States. Anything else constitutes a unilateral and unconstitutional rebellion against the perpetual Union that Prejudices the sovereign rights and duties previously delegated by agreement of the seceding State to the member States of the perpetual Union. The member States of the perpetual Union had the right and the obligation of the Constitution to “To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections.”

The mythical assertion that the seceding sovereign State has not previously delegated the Constitution's enumerated power to “dispose of and make all needful Rules and Regulations respecting the Territory or other Property belonging to the United States” until and unless the consent of Congress assembled has been obtained is without any shred of a valid basis, as the words written in the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution clearly attest.

23 posted on 04/01/2014 3:34:12 AM PDT by WhiskeyX
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To: WhiskeyX
The mythical assertion that the seceding sovereign State has not previously delegated the Constitution's enumerated power to “dispose of and make all needful Rules and Regulations respecting the Territory or other Property belonging to the United States” until and unless the consent of Congress assembled has been obtained is without any shred of a valid basis, as the words written in the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution clearly attest.

That ratification of the Constitution made the States themselves property of the national government seems inconsistent with reference to the sovereignty of the States. There is no sovereignty under those circumstances, and if that is how the Constitution were understood and intended at the time, there would have been no reference to it. They would have understood that they were relinquishing all claim to it.

30 posted on 04/01/2014 4:03:29 AM PDT by tacticalogic
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