So regardless of the manual date, if the kenyan had a son in Hawaii and insisted on his race being entered as AFRICAN, he would end up being classified as 9.
OTHER NON WHITE.
Why? Might that be because his race was simply NOT STATED?
First, let’s answer the question would Obama Sr. put down the word “African”.
From the 1962 Kenya census instructions,
“Column 5. Race – Write European, Arab, Somalia or African, etc. Asians must write Indian or Pakistan.
http://www.hist.umn.edu/~rmccaa/IPUMSI/CensusForms/Africa/ke1962ef_kenya_enumeration_forms.en.pdf
“Might that be because his race was simply NOT STATED?”
That’s hard to answer as the instructions say this - “(7) If the racial entry for either parent is not clearly identifiable as one of the races in the code scheme, consult the supervisor.”
So what would the supervisor decide?
Since the parents race code is used to determine the child’s race code, maybe we can glean something from the instructions for determining the child’s race.
“5) If the racial entry for one parent is omitted or unknown, code race of child as the race of the other parent.”
“6) If the racial entry for both parents is omitted or unknown, code 1 (white).”
Does that mean that if the race of father was left blank, they wouldn’t code it at all?