“and If you sell your house after 2012 you’ll pay a new 3.8% sales tax on it”
I missed that. Is it true? How can that be constitutional? (Not that it seems to matter.) Are the states all arm-twisted into doing it? Isn’t federal only allowed to tax income or in a manner apportioned among the states.
It’s a medicare surcharge that is being expanded to include ununearned income. It starts to kick in for AGI above 200k, 250k for married couples filing jointly.