No. Taxes on wage income were considered indirect, even before the 16th Amendment, as were taxes from Excise (liquor taxes are an example) or tariff.
Property income was treated as a direct tax, per Pollock v.Farmers Loan and Trust Company. After that the source of the income had to be considered, with things ‘like’ income from property being direct and things ‘like’ income from wages being indirect.
Until the 16th Amendment, permitted tax on income from what ever sources. The 16th amendment had no effect on wage income, oddly enough.
JWK