We disagree completely; either side has the moral right to unilaterally change or terminate an employment contract, at least so far as future employment is concerned, and any day either party can start a brand new negotiation for a meeting of the minds that will either lead to a new agreement or a severed relationship. Based on the results of the 2006 election, I informed everyone working for me that they would be phased out over a two year period - unilaterally. As it worked out, they were almost all all gone in one year. I was not "negotiating in good faith" on that issue. Previously, I had employees from time to time who would leave based on a better offer, and I never felt that I had the right to compel them to negotiate "in good faith" on whether they would stay. If they asked to renegotiate pay or other issues, I would consider that possibility. If they said they were leaving, I politely wished them good luck. We are free Americans, and either side can unilaterally alter or terminate any employment contract. If the law disagrees, then the law is an ass and morally wrong.
Does the same apply to, say, an agreement to purchase goods and services?
If not, why not?
I don't mean to be contentious, I'd really like to hear others thoughts on this.