I doubt it for two reasons. Number one, there is a law that has been in force since 1798 called the Alien Tort Claims Act. It specifically allows foreigners to file lawsuits in the USA. Secondly, the Defendants in this case specifically demanded the inclusion of foreign plaintiffs. It would be hard for them to back-peddle on their own demands in an appeal.
When I read the title of that act, I picture foreigners suign a US party in a US court because the US court would have jurisdiction. Foreigners suing other foreigners in the US over an event in a foreign country makes no sense. Or did I mis-read the case entirely?