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To: Harlan1196
Does one law take precedent over the other?
In other words, does one law have to be applied or be applicable before the other can take place?

Like with a theft. Theft is the just the base charge. It is then considered if it is one of many forms of theft, like aggravated theft if a weapon was involved.
Maybe not the best analogy, but it'll suffice.

The first law has to apply for the other to be considered.

425 posted on 03/08/2012 1:10:46 PM PST by philman_36 (Pride breakfasted with plenty, dined with poverty, and supped with infamy. Benjamin Franklin)
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To: philman_36

The judge is saying the laws are not related

One set of laws governs how political parties pick who is on the primary ballots.

The second law does not applied to primary ballots but only to candidates on the general ballot.

In other words, the plaintiffs did not have legal recourse to the law they filed their complaint under.


431 posted on 03/08/2012 1:21:14 PM PST by Harlan1196
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