No, it was Aristotle. (322 BC, which was 2334 years ago.)
Who is the citizen, and what is the meaning of the term?...Leaving out of consideration those who have been made citizens, or who have obtained the name of citizen any other accidental manner, we may say, first, that a citizen is not a citizen because he lives in a certain place, for resident aliens and slaves share in the place;
...But the citizen whom we are seeking to define is a citizen in the strictest sense, against whom no such exception can be taken, and his special characteristic is that he shares in the administration of justice, and in offices.
...a citizen is defined to be one of whom both the parents are citizens;
Look it up yourself. Aristotle, Book 3, Section II, First Sentence.
Of course, the founders would have no knowledge of Aristotle because they were ignorant bumpkins, barely able to do Advanced Mathematics and speak French, Latin, Greek, Hebrew and English. :)
The one person that the Founders HAD certainly read was Emerich de Vattel, and his book "Droit des Gens". (The Founders read French quite well, thank you very much.)
He basically said the same thing as Aristotle.
America is a common law country - the only thing that matters is the case law.
Lets talk about American law.