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To: StonyBurk

Unless and until such a “declaration” is made regarding Article II, it’s meaningless. The meaning of the term remains the meaning of the term, however derived.


30 posted on 02/05/2012 10:28:08 AM PST by RegulatorCountry (+)
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To: RegulatorCountry

The conundrum is —we now have Courts that have been free to determine the rules for their Court. And when they determine that the terms used mean something other than their natural import suggests -as they have done with “Natural born citizen” in Article II and with the term “Congress” seen in the First
Amendment ...and ...? Then in their Court terms used are meaningless.And so long as Congress refuses to act as that check and balance. intended. So long as We the people are kept divided and ignorant.Nothing gets dome to remedy the House and nation divided against itself.The meaning of the terms used in our Constitution is meaningless when the Courts are allowed freedom to change the meaning of the terms used at will.


161 posted on 02/06/2012 5:42:37 AM PST by StonyBurk (ring)
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