I wonder how any honest lawyer could argue against it.
I might even be inclined to say that...it's so easy, even a caveman could understand it.
With any due respect owed to any cavemen (or cavewomen) out there who may be ofeeeeended by that.
{:^)
Where oh where will you find one. This thread will soon be invaded by lawyer types to tell you how stupid every one is, that thinks this means anything. They will cite myriads of precedent setting cases just to prove that common sense is really dead after all.
“I wonder how any honest lawyer could argue against it.”
What’s an honest lawyer?
Some things are really so simple they are overlooked because they are so taken for granted. We cannot afford to take ANYTHING for granted these days.
:)
which law?
the law at the time of the birth?
the law at the time of running for office?
common law vs statutory law regarding statutory interpritation.
Constitution vs statutory.
administrative code vs black letter law...
it goes on and on.
this is still a go nowhere argument. There are only two types of citizens.
Legally speaking one must actually be “UNDER” the laws of citizenship before one is “SUBJECT” to them. Therefore one at birth who's parents(BOTH father & mother in one union in the eyes of the natural law of allegiance) are NOT under the “JURISDICTION” of the laws of citizenship, can not gain that which the “JURISDICTION” of said laws of citizenship define.
Slaves were never considered to be under the laws of citizenship as they were not “free persons” as defined by A1S2 of the US Constitution and representation. But when they were freed, they naturally became members of the nation because of same said law as they were now classified under the law as persons, not property and being slaves, they never owed political allegiance to any other nation.
I'm not offended. I'm an ogre, not some smelly, stupid caveman.
I wonder about that too.