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To: DiogenesLamp

But you said earlier that an act of Congress cannot redefine Article II. What you meant to say was that an act of Congress cannot redefine what you personally believe Article II means. There is a difference.


109 posted on 04/08/2011 1:13:43 PM PDT by K-Stater
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To: K-Stater

“But you said earlier that an act of Congress cannot redefine Article II. What you meant to say was that an act of Congress cannot redefine what you personally believe Article II means. There is a difference.”

An act of congress cannot redefine ANY aspect of the constitution. My personal beliefs are irrelevant to that fact. That is OBJECTIVE FACT.

The question is not whether Congress can redefine it. (They cannot.) The question is what is the objective meaning and intent?

That question is easily enough answered by researching what the founders wrote, starting with John Jay’s letter to Washington which CAUSED that term to be inserted into Article II.

Your argument is not with me. You must refute what the founders wrote. Here’s a link to get you started.

http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_6jaVHAW3QCY/ST2ornjQZ3I/AAAAAAAAAH0/ZwqM4gPZtxs/s1600/JohnJay-NBCletter.jpg


113 posted on 04/08/2011 1:50:03 PM PDT by DiogenesLamp
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