Do you have a problem with my information? If so, please be specific and don't imply that I am giving wrong information.
Maybe it a matter of perception but the message I got from reading your posts was that foreclosure auctions could not possibly be fraudulent.
Quote from the article I linked:
"It's yet another muddle for the already overwhelmed foreclosure courts to sort out as former Stern cases went to auction with no bank representation, bids or proper public notice"
This would beg the question...if there was "no proper public notice" who were these people doing the bidding? How did they find out about the properties?"