I have been studying Prentiss Webster's treatise on citizenship(1891). In addition to his very intense discourse on the origins of citizenship, it also contains all the treaties between nations on citizenship from the revolution through the passing of the Expatriation Act. It is from the study of these treaties that I come with these questions that I believe are at the core of the illegality of the rulings of the WKA case as well as lower court rulings in favor of the feudal definition of citizenship.
Did the founding fathers use/hoodwink the French in helping them to gain freedom from England in order to force citizenship of every child born to a Frenchman on US soil; which would have been in complete disregard of the French laws and International laws they swore to abide by for the help & support of France? IOW, would the French have helped if they knew that the goal of the founders was to create their very own monarchial government in which the soil of the government, not the natural rights of men was the underlying cause of the revolution?
Does the US Constitution grant any court in the US, whether it be municipal, state, federal or supreme, the authority to supersede a treaty between nations or a subsequent act of congress pertaining to a treaty without wholly deeming that treaty to be unconstitutional and therefore declaring that the treaty holds no weight of law?
Hope someone who’s studied that time might
have some detailed Founders’ reference info.