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To: Spaulding; The Pack Knight; Uncle Chip

“Replying to trolls serves the purpose of informing others so let’s clear up this lie: “

If you have evidence I’m mistaken, please present it. Every source I’ve found says the first time Vattel was translated using NBC was AFTER the Constitution was written.

If I am wrong about that, show me and I’ll retract the statement and argument. Until then, please try to answer arguments instead of the much more typical name calling.

“One of framers, a President between the Revolution and the ratification, Dr. David Ramsay, restated the definition perfectly clearly in an essay after he had returned to his medical practice. It is Vattel’s definition, and there has never been another.”

Beats me - I’ve never read Ramsey. Others defined it differently, using it as the equivalent of born inside the USA. That is why there is a dispute - different folks used it in different ways. I could pull up ample quotes from people and lawyers in the same time frame that used it in the sense WKA argued for - hence the dispute.

“The fact that the French/English translators of Vattel’s work settled on the English phrase “natural born citizen” for the French word “indigenes” right at the time that the Constitution was being circulated and read far and wide is a solid indication that the two were equivalent in meaning and inextricably intertwined.”

Not hardly. If it were, it would have been translated thus from the beginning. All it shows is one translator used it AFTER the Constitution was written. And since “Indigenous” is the transliterated form of Vattel’s French, it obviously conveys the meaning well - except then the whole “Vattel is Scripture” movement falls apart...


48 posted on 05/13/2010 7:41:51 AM PDT by Mr Rogers
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To: Mr Rogers

<>Beats me - I’ve never read Ramsey.<>

Here, read it and learn:

http://www.thepostemail.com/2010/04/02/founder-and-historian-david-ramsay-defines-natural-born-citizen-in-1789/

<>If it were, it would have been translated thus from the beginning. All it shows is one translator used it AFTER the Constitution was written.<>

And why would he do that if they did not mean the same thing??? And other translators followed. And there was no dispute.

And what makes you think that it wasn’t that way in earlier translations??? Where did John Jay get the phrase “natural born citizen” and how come Washington adn the other Framers understood it enough to put it into Article II and then into the Immigration Act of 1790???

By your reasoning we should all abandon the word “Christ” since it was at some point substituted for the word “Messiah” by some Greek translator well after he had come. It’s ludicrous.


49 posted on 05/13/2010 8:14:46 AM PDT by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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