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To: M Kehoe
Doesn't the great state of Texas have a clause in their constitution regarding secession?

No.

546 posted on 02/27/2010 7:22:07 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: Non-Sequitur
No?

THE TEXAS CONSTITUTION

ARTICLE 1. BILL OF RIGHTS

Sec. 1. FREEDOM AND SOVEREIGNTY OF STATE. Texas is a free and independent State, subject only to the Constitution of the United States, and the maintenance of our free institutions and the perpetuity of the Union depend upon the preservation of the right of local self-government, unimpaired to all the States.

Sec. 2. INHERENT POLITICAL POWER; REPUBLICAN FORM OF GOVERNMENT. All political power is inherent in the people, and all free governments are founded on their authority, and instituted for their benefit. The faith of the people of Texas stands pledged to the preservation of a republican form of government, and, subject to this limitation only, they have at all times the inalienable right to alter, reform or abolish their government in such manner as they may think expedient.

Maybe not a "clause," but seems to me the Lonestar state makes it pretty clear if certain rights are breached by the federal government, they can dissolve the relationship.

Obviously, this question of law is not stare decisis, no matter what Scalia thinks.

5.56mm

547 posted on 02/27/2010 8:31:38 AM PST by M Kehoe
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