Sez you, the great constitutional editor. I recognize the language of the Tenth Amendment as readily as you, and the only parties doing any "forbidding" are the States themselves -- and that language is not used in Articles I and IV; but rather, you had to go all the way back to Amendment X, which wasn't composed in the Philadelphia Convention, to get the word "prohibit". The original language of Articles I and IV is much more expressive of original intent, and it uses the phrase "no State shall...."
Of course you do.
...and the only parties doing any "forbidding" are the States themselves...
"...or prohibited by it to the States...." Sure sounds like it's the Constitution doing the forbidding.
The original language of Articles I and IV is much more expressive of original intent...."
Of course it is.