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To: liege

"Used personally, it is paid."

Um I believe that all paid leave has to be expended/used first before FMLA can be invoked. And at that point, its unpaid.

http://hr.nd.edu/questions/faq_ben/faq_ben_taw_fml_pay.shtml


17 posted on 12/17/2006 8:52:10 AM PST by marajade (Yes, I'm a SW freak!)
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To: marajade

When my husband had surgery and an extended recovery under FMLA, first we had to use sick leave time, then we could have used his vacation time, but after that it would have been unpaid. They would have had to hold his job for him...that's the provision. Also, where my husband works, oftentimes other employees donate hours to an employee who needs FMLA and hasn't built up enough time to cover their time off.

Luckily, he had enough sick time to cover his leave.


25 posted on 12/17/2006 9:30:11 AM PST by dawn53
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