To: tacticalogic
Again, you're being extremely vague. Give an example. Are you referring to something akin to forgetting to file your taxes, or something like that? If so, than I might agree with your statement. But on the issue of drugs and drug dealers you know as well as I do, unfortunately traviskicks doesn't, that the government did not create them or the illicit behavior.
44 posted on
08/08/2006 8:53:48 PM PDT by
phoenix0468
(http://www.mylocalforum.com -- Go Speak Your Mind.)
To: phoenix0468
But on the issue of drugs and drug dealers you know as well as I do, unfortunately traviskicks doesn't, that the government did not create them or the illicit behavior.I'm afraid I don't see it as being that simple. Yes, people used and sold drugs before the goverment controlled them. I don't believe that someone buying opiates, for example, to treat their own pain before it was regulated was necessarily a criminal, nor was the person selling them provided he wasn't misrepresenting what he was selling. That same transaction, post-regulation would be considered criminal, yet involves no more criminal intent than it did originally.
To say that the government only codifies what is already objectively criminal and doesn't create any "collateral damage" in the process is not realistic.
46 posted on
08/08/2006 9:04:35 PM PDT by
tacticalogic
("Oh bother!" said Pooh, as he chambered his last round.)
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