I believe civil actions are distinct from criminal in that regard.
I was more talking about the ability to use a criminal verdict as conclusive evidence of fraud in a civil matter (collateral estoppel? judicial estoppel? --- not a lawyer, so I know not what the fancy word is).
Even tho civil actions are separate, they are generally based on the outcome of a criminal trial.
Once the government declares 'no harm no foul' in the case of a deceased person, then it would seem reasonable that the civil portion has no merit or evidence of injury.
'I'm not a lawyer, but I've seen one on TV'