That's not in Mark 5, you may want to take another look, I think you mean Mark 10.
However, Jesus speaks in Matthew 5 on this subject:
Mt 5v32: "But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality ("fornication" in the KJV), makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery."
He also repeats this in Matthew 19v9
Nice strawman agrument, but it doesn't hold in the light of God's Word.
He also speaks in Mark, and in Mark there is not the qualification that is in Matthew. Jesus is quite clear on the subject, what God hath joined let no man break apart. Divorce nullifies God's work in bringing the man and woman together. So why does Matthew overturn Mark?
Nice strawman agrument, but it doesn't hold in the light of God's Word.
And when did Jesus speak on homosexuality?