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To: Maelstrom
We are discussing the current universe of registered voters in California, not the actual number of Republicans and Democrats in the state.

It is a fact that in 2002:

Democrats 45%
Republicans 35%
independents 15%
other 5%

From that universe, we have election results.

If Republican voters were a majority in California, why did California chose Gore over Bush, Clinton over Dole, and Clinton over Bush?

633 posted on 08/13/2003 12:36:48 PM PDT by george wythe
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To: george wythe
It's also a fact that the 45% is over-represented. A significant portion of those are fraudulent.

...which answers your question quite adroitly with a single word...

Fraud.

If just 20% of the registered voters in the Democrat party is fraudulent, the Republicans have near-parity.

20% of 45 = 9 45-9 = 36
36%Dem
35%Rep
15%Ind
9% Fraud

But you didn't get it when the Canticle helped you, I don't expect your math to be up to snuff.
639 posted on 08/13/2003 12:50:35 PM PDT by Maelstrom (To prevent misinterpretation or abuse of the Constitution:The Bill of Rights limits government power)
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