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To: gdebrae
I'm not baiting.

I like to understand other viewpoints correctly. I think I learned more about amillennialism in the introduction to this article than I'd learned ever before. This author is an extremely clear writer.

We had our differences yesterday on a different thread. On FR we're not supposed to carry over from one thread to another. I try to follow that. That doesn't mean that I'll agree with you, but I do want to understand.
62 posted on 11/15/2002 4:10:44 PM PST by xzins
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To: xzins
Do you think that Christians can be demon possessed?
63 posted on 11/15/2002 4:14:21 PM PST by irishtenor
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To: xzins
like to understand other viewpoints correctly.

If I understand correctly, the premil interpretation of the word "zao" (to live) in Rev. 20:4 and 5 understands this to refer to bodily resurrection as in "they came to life again". These are the phrases "they lived and reigned with Christ" in verse 4 and in verse 5 "The rest of the dead did not live"

John knew very well the two greek words for resurrection. In using the word "zao" I think he intended to emphasize not the act of resurrection but the quality of life as in "everyone that beholdeth the Son, and believeth on him, should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.{John 6:40

The post I responded to seem to clearly say that satan deceives people who are physically alive and a person decieved by satan is spiritually dead. In Rev. 20:8 the deceived, the spiritually dead, are very much alive and are gathered for war. The dead in Rev. 20:12 can't be physically dead for the text points out that the dead are standing and the dead are judged. There is no mention of a bodily resurrection.

If I understand Scripture one can be literally "spiritual dead" just as well as someone can be literally "physically dead". It seems to me that "deceived nations" and the "dead" in Rev. 20 refer to the same kind of reality. If I understand correctly the premil interpretation of the "dead" of verse five are physically dead and the "dead" of verse 12-13 are spiritually dead.

My take on verses 4 and 5 against the backgroud of verse 3:In verse 3 all the nations (gentiles) as deceived by satan are spiritually dead. In verse 4 "some of the dead" are made alive in Christ. In verse 5 the "rest of the dead" have no connection to Christ.

Why would John say something like this? Read John 3:16-21.

If verse 4 and 5 refer to bodily resurrection why would John not clearly say so with either one of the two greek words for resurrection?

And if the nations are spiritually dead in verse 3 how do you jump in verses 4,5 to physically dead in need of bodily resurrection?

My premise is quite simple: physically alive people deceived by satan are spiritually dead. I don't know whether any of this helps, but I do think that both amil and premil need to do more work with this text.

86 posted on 11/15/2002 5:32:32 PM PST by gdebrae
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