Therein, you had asked: Isn't your position that the result of satan's binding is the establishment of the millennial kingdom where the bodily resurrected saints are sitting on thrones reigning with Christ?
No that is not my position. Satan's binding does not cause the establishment of the millennial kingdom. Christ's return (in Rev 19) is the cause of the millennial kingdom. Binding Satan during the millennial kingdom is part of God's plan, as are those sitting on the thrones and the beheaded souls who reign with Christ part of God's plan. Binding Satan is a result of God (or Christ) establishing the millennium. In cause/effect terms, Satan's binding is effect, not cause.
As to your statement here in post #2291:
I challenged on premil on this thread to show the causal connection between the binding and loosing of satan and verses 4-6 and the reply I received is that there is no causal connection, there is only a conincidental relationship.
My answer in post #1228 was: My argument is that there is no causative relation between Satan's binding and the establishment of the millennium. Again, God's plan for the millennium included binding Satan. God establishes the millennium, not Satan's binding.
I was further stepping through your statements and questions, one of which was Vss 4-6 are not a parenthesis unrelated to vss 3 and 7. The chain and the pit establish the fact of satan's binding. to which I responded:
Related yes (more like 'associated'), by virtue of being concurrent within the thousand years, but not cause and effect relationship. I and others would go further and argue, as we have, verse 3 describes the totality of Satan's binding as well as the fact.
So my characterization of an 'associative relationship' was as opposed to 'unrelated' or no relationship. Clearly Satan was bound during the thousand years, but Satan's binding did not cause the millennium to begin, nor did the millennium cause Satan's binding. Christ's return is the cause of Satan's binding.
I did not present Satan as having absolute power, to the contrary:
The premil presents satan as having absolute power, a loose canon that Christ can't do anything about.
I lead off in post #1228 with: Satan's binding does not cause the establishment of the millennial kingdom. Christ's return (in Rev 19) is the cause of the millennial kingdom. Binding Satan during the millennial kingdom is part of God's plan, as are those sitting on the thrones and the beheaded souls who reign with Christ part of God's plan. Binding Satan is a result of God (or Christ) establishing the millennium. In cause/effect terms, Satan's binding is effect, not cause.
Another question of your's which I quoted in post #1228 was: Isn't your position that the result of satan's binding is the establishment of the millennial kingdom where the bodily resurrected saints are sitting on thrones reigning with Christ? to which I answered:
My argument is that there is no causative relation between Satan's binding and the establishment of the millennium. Again, God's plan for the millennium included binding Satan. God establishes the millennium, not Satan's binding.
You had then asked a follow-up question in your post #1314, quoting Starwind from #1228: So, again, Satan's binding is not causative, and verse 5 is not the result of verse 3.
Rev. 20:4-6 describe what takes place during the thousand years. If satan's binding is not causative, then it has no effect on what takes place during the millennium. His binding then is simply coincidental and in fact meaningless and unncessary.
Since it has no effect on what takes place during the thousand years then what is the PURPOSE of his binding?
It does not follow from not being causative to having no effect. Christ's return was the cause of Satan's defeat in Rev 19 and then his binding at the beginning of the millennium in Rev 20. But the effect of Satan's binding is that Satan not deceive during the 1000 years. But just because Satan is not deceiving, does not mean that sin or human depravity in the millennial population is altogether eliminated. As humans, they remain sons of Adam.
But as to the PURPOSE of Satan's binding (beyond the obvious suppression of deception) I think goes to God's larger purposes for the 'nations', and their identity and God's plan for them is the subject of debate elsewhere on this thread.
Matter of fact - Rev. 20:4-6 define what the binding is about. There is a causal relationship between vs 3 and 4. Vs 1-3 see all the nations as spiritually dead as deceived by satan. His binding prevents him from deceiving the nations. The result is that some of the spiritually dead are seen sitting on thrones, living and reigning with Christ, the first and foremost resurrection. The rest of the dead (vs5) remain under satan's deception and have no spiritual life and are finally cast into the lake of fire to experience the second death. Those participating in the First Resurrection live and reign with Christ forever. This is God's final judgment about those who believe in Christ.
No. There is no causal relationship between Rev 3 vs and 4.
Gdebrae, you write "some of the spiritually dead are seen sitting on thrones, living and reigning with Christ," Are you serious? Spiritually dead reigning with Christ? Of course not. What is the metaphor in that pray tell?
I disagree with the characterization of 'The rest of the dead' as merely spiritually dead. They are physically dead as well. What is stated in verse 5 (the rest of the dead not coming to life) is not the result of the action in verse 3 (Satan's binding). Again, Satan's binding is not the cause of the dead remaining dead. The physically and spiritually dead of verse 5 stay dead for the duration of the millennium because they are unsaved (unlike the saints and beheaded souls) and consequently in God's plan, are destined for judgment and condemnation at the white throne. They stay dead, but not because Satan is bound. They stay dead because they're unsaved and awaiting judgment. Likewise, if/when Satan were not bound, the dead of verse 5 would still remain dead as neither physical nor spiritual resurrection is within Satan's power, bound or not. So, again, Satan's binding is not causative, and verse 5 is not the result of verse 3.