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To: Smokeyblue; 1rudeboy
"If being an American citizen was enough then why did congress have to pass a LEGALLY INVALID BILL for John McCain back in 2008 to try and make him eligible?"

Because laws are sometimes complex and/ or misunderstood by the public, and therefore Congress sometimes passes a law to clarify what the law actually is.

It's exactly what our Senators and Representatives did when they passed the Civil Rights Act of 1866, and declared that black people born in the United States were US citizens.

The sponsors generally said that the law was simply a declaration of what they already understood the law to be. It just needed to be clarified, so that no one could deny it.

360 posted on 07/21/2013 4:38:19 PM PDT by Jeff Winston
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To: Jeff Winston
Because laws are sometimes complex and/ or misunderstood by the public, and therefore Congress sometimes passes a law to clarify what the law actually is.

Bwaahhhh. Anyone reading this and still can't see JW as a psycho troll needs just give up and head over to the Demotard camp. Thinking is hard.

The sponsors generally said that the law was simply a declaration of what they already understood the law to be. It just needed to be clarified, so that no one could deny it.

Yeah, and they passed non-binding resolutions all day long like McCain has white hair. McCain is a fat ####. McCain is X years old. McCain is has a tard daughter.

Cuz, they had nothing better to do then pass non-binding resolutions about McCain's lack of NBC citizenship.

392 posted on 07/21/2013 4:56:11 PM PDT by Smokeyblue
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To: Jeff Winston
Because laws are sometimes complex and/ or misunderstood by the public, and therefore Congress sometimes passes a law to clarify what the law actually is.

Sometimes they pass AMENDMENTS to make people into citizens who were NOT citizens before. How's that 14th Amendment explanation you've been working at coming along? No doubt you will include a bunch more truncated quotes from Bingham or Turnbull in it.

It's exactly what our Senators and Representatives did when they passed the Civil Rights Act of 1866, and declared that black people born in the United States were US citizens.

Very glad you mentioned that, what DOES that act say? Why here it is, it says this:

Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United States of America in Congress assembled, That all persons born in the United States and not subject to any foreign power, excluding Indians not taxed, are hereby declared to be citizens of the United States; and such citizens, of every race and color, without regard to any previous condition of slavery or involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, ...

So what does this mean? That if you are born here SUBJECT TO ANY FOREIGN POWER that means you are not a citizen?

Now who would have put that in there? Don't they know that it is in conflict with the British Law Jeff is always yammering on about?

The sponsors generally said that the law was simply a declaration of what they already understood the law to be. It just needed to be clarified, so that no one could deny it.

Of course it was. Prior law EXCLUDED the children of Foreign Fathers from citizenship as well. (Unless said fathers expressed intent to naturalize, of course.) Yes, the civil rights act of 1866 was expressing the understanding of existing law, but with the caveat that the congress would explicitly apply the law to a class of people to which it had not heretofore been applicable.

468 posted on 07/21/2013 7:11:03 PM PDT by DiogenesLamp (Partus Sequitur Patrem)
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