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To: robertpaulsen
In 1789, "the people" meant white, male, citizen landowners. Period.

Then quote the part of the Constitution defining "the people" of the 2nd Amendment.

Today, of course, "the people" also include non-whites and women.

Which is it, RP? White male citizen landowners, or ... who? You're very fluid as to which applies today, yet claim absolutes each time you type. Does it currently apply to a white male able-bodied 39-year-old citizen seeking to purchase a new M4 from a dealer who lawfully possesses one and is willing to sell if only the BATFE would approve the Form 4 transfer paperwork and accept the $200 tax?

37 posted on 10/17/2007 9:05:22 PM PDT by ctdonath2 (The color blue tastes like the square root of 0?)
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To: ctdonath2
"You're very fluid as to which applies today, yet claim absolutes each time you type."

So free speech doesn't apply to radio, television and the Internet? If it did, that would be a very fluid interpretation according to you.

"Does it currently apply to a white male able-bodied 39-year-old citizen seeking to purchase a new M4 from a dealer who lawfully possesses one and is willing to sell if only the BATFE would approve the Form 4 transfer paperwork and accept the $200 tax?"

By "it" you mean the phrase "the people" in the second amendment? Yes, the phrase "the people" certainly includes him. As a member of a well regulated state Militia, his right to keep and bear Militia-type arms is protected from federal infringement by the second amendment.

40 posted on 10/18/2007 5:24:04 AM PDT by robertpaulsen
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