I’ll bite.
If “the people” amounts to “eligible to vote”, then do you conceed the 2nd Amendment protects (to wit “shall not be infringed”), at least on a federal level, the right of all registered voters to keep and bear arms?
Yes, assuming the registered voter a) is otherwise qualified (ie., not in jail, not insane, etc.) and b) is acting in a capacity as a Militia member.
The phrase "the people" as used in the U.S. Constitution had a certain meaning to the Founding Fathers. It meant the enfranchised body politic, "full" citizens, individuals who were invested in the country. In 1792, "the people" were white, male, voting, citizen landowners. Not everyone. (Today, of course, "the people" encompass a larger group.)
If the Founders meant every individual, the used the term "person" (or "he"). If they only meant citizens they used the term "citizens".
The Founders could easily have written the second amendment using those other terms if that was who they meant to protect.