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Posted on 01/02/2007 11:46:14 AM PST by pjr12345
Below are all the biblical references to Mary, the mother of Jesus that I could locate. Anything beyond Scriptural references is conjecture, the philosophies of men and not God.
Would anyone care to construct a Scripturally accurate portrait of Mary, leaving behind extra-biblical sources?
Please include your Scriptural references in support of your description.
Isaiah 7:13-14
Matthew 1:13-25; 2:11, 14, 20-21; 12: 46-50; 13:54-56
Mark 3:31-35; 6:3
Luke 1:26-56; 2:1-7, 16-19, 27, 33-35, 39, 41-51; 8:19-21
John 2:1-12; 6:41-42; 19:25-26
Acts 1:14
This is conjecture, the philosophy of men.
If you're not interested in the challenge, then don't post.
ditto: If you're not interested in the challenge, then you don't need to post.
Just wondering from where you derive the authority to say what is and isn't the inspired word of God.
Not needed on this thread. It assumes that those posting already accept the Supremacy of Scripture.
Xnooze.
You have this listed under "General Discussion", and I am discussing the premise of your challenge, which is false.
Revelation 11:19 - 12:17.
(If you're in the mood, K. :-).
Which is a crazy idea for those who accept the Supremacy of only God.
You do have bibles, don't you?
Wonderful challenge.
Thanks.
Yeah 'cept they aren't the Supremely Powerful English Language Better than the Originals versions y'all bandy about.
"Revelation 11:19 - 12:17.
(If you're in the mood, K. :-)"
Of late, the protestants have been on quite a tear about the Most Holy Theotokos. In fact, for the past 100 years or so they've been on that tear. I'm only in the mood to advise this to our brethren in The Church, TC:
By "Contentions," he means, with heretics, in which he would not have us labor to no purpose, where nothing is to be gained, for they end in nothing. For when a man is perverted and predetermined not to change his mind, whatever may happen, why shouldest thou labor in vain, sowing upon a rock, when thou shouldest spend thy honorable toil upon thy own people, in discoursing with them upon almsgiving and every other virtue?
How then does he elsewhere say, "If God peradventure will give them repentance"; but here, "A man that is an heretic after the first and second admonition reject, knowing that he that is such is subverted and sinneth, being condemned of himself"? In the former passage he speaks of the correction of those of whom he had hope, and who had simply made opposition. But when he is known and manifest to all, why dost thou contend in vain? why dost thou beat the air? What means, "being condemned of himself"? Because he cannot say that no one has told him, no one admonished him; since therefore after admonition he continues the same, he is self-condemned." +John Chrysostomos; Homily VI on Titus
Challenge accepted.
And I'll go you one further. Let's take kawaii's wise advice, toss out our English translations (they are extra-biblical) and take out our Greek New Testaments and our Liddell and Scott Greek lexicons.
We're gonna do this in the original. :)
I'm curious why you didn't quote the actual passages, in their original languages, rather than numbers and English Language names.
I'm sure you realize that these scriptures were not authored by English speakers, nor were they written in English.
I certainly could have. However, I don't see what possible useful purpose it would have served.
Bunch of references here.
http://www.gospels.net/translations/infancyjamestranslation.html
BTW if you don't regard that as scripture can you please explain why not?
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