What is it that keeps you spouting the same irrelevant, finger-pointing gibberish when asked a simple question whose relevancy to the issue of God's infallibility is obvious? Did or did not the christian God countenance the mauling, murder or enslavement of Mideanite children, Egyptian children, and mocking children? Did or did not God's Agents of His Perfect Love carry this teaching through to imprison Galileo, and to horribly murder and plague innocents of virtually every stripe throughout it's sorry 2000 year history? Don't you think a claim of infallibility is a claim that needs to somehow be demonstrated? The makers of Roe v. Wade made no claims to infallibility--and infallibility is the question on the table.
The infallibility of God's word is a topic of discussion wasted on those who view the Bible as simply a book. Much less, those who view it with contempt.