In this case, the "established legal principle" whose existence you're asserting on this thread is that Congress's commerce powers can justify federal prohibitions on possession on articles of commerce. If you're saying that a bunch of lower courts all came to this conclusion at once, independently and unanimously, without any prior SCOTUS cases having established this, then please cite your evidence.
Not at once, over time. Repeatedly, consistently, unanimously.
Instead of demanding that I prove a negative, why don't you produce the cite you falsely claimed they "regurgitated"?