[robertpaulsen]

"because the Commerce Clause explicitly puts intrastate activity outside of federal authority."

Really? I thought you conceded that a pre-FDR court ruled that Congress may regulate intrastate traffic under the Commerce Clause. Was that pre-FDR court in error also? Is there some USSC court that hasn't been in error, according to you? Any court?

Be that as it may, the Commerce Clause does not give Congress the power to regulate purely intrastate activity. Of course, that's not what were talking about here, so I have no idea why you're bringing it up. Care to fill me in?

" And I might consider humoring you if you tell my why that would humor you."

Consider? Might consider? I tell you and in return you might consider it?

Hah! Tell you what. I'll consider telling you. Maybe.

[Know your rights]

I thought you conceded that a pre-FDR court ruled that Congress may regulate intrastate traffic under the Commerce Clause.

Doesn't sound right to me ... better quote me exactly.

Be that as it may, the Commerce Clause does not give Congress the power to regulate purely intrastate activity

More than simply not granting that authority, it *explicitly* puts intrastate activity outside of federal authority.