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To: Bigh4u2
What? Considering foreign law is quite different than what's going on here
36 posted on 04/26/2005 8:57:56 AM PDT by neutrality
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To: neutrality
And just how was the conviction obtained?

Was it by U.S. law?

It was FOREIGN law that convicted this guy. So you can't say 'foreign law applies' in a U.S. court, and on the other hand claim that the 'conviction' is independent.

If it not were for the 'conviction' to begin with, the 'foreign law' would have no bearing.
43 posted on 04/26/2005 9:11:42 AM PDT by Bigh4u2 (Denial is the first requirement to be a liberal)
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