Likewise slavery did not begin until Genesis 10.
To say that because slavery is in the Bible means that it is good is no different then saying that because pologmy is in the Bible (it begins in Gen.4), that it should be acceptable also.
God did not intend man to be a slave or to have more then one wife.
Your Confederacy was fighting to keep slavery alive as a virtue, just like you and your buddies are arguing for it now.
The Confederacy was anti-American and thus, Anti-Freedom
"Your Confederacy was fighting to keep slavery alive as a virtue, just like you and your buddies are arguing for it now"
Please, explain. Which of us argued FOR slavery?
"To say that because slavery is in the Bible means that it is good is no different then saying that because pologmy is in the Bible (it begins in Gen.4), that it should be acceptable also. "
Please read MY response to the "slavery in the Bible" question before you attack his opinion on it. It may enlighten you.
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-news/1390366/posts?page=157#157
Number 157.
"God did not intend man to be a slave or to have more then one wife. "
Please show an example of this in the Bible. You are, after all, interpreting it for us.
"The Confederacy was anti-American and thus, Anti-Freedom"
How could it be anti-American? It WAS American! It may have been anti-federal union, but I assure you, they believed in what the Founding Fathers believed in. A Union OF States, not a Union OVER States.
In the scripture, Polygamy was SPECIFICALLY condemned by Jesus. Slavery was not even mentioned.
Show me where the Bible condemns slavery. You won't be able
to do so, because slavery was ingrained in Jewish society at the time. Obviously, Jesus did not worry too much about it.
By the standards of our day, MANS standards, we realize slavery is wrong. Again, the Bible doesn't condemn it.