Well, the dispute seems to me to be about manipulation of the popular vote.
That doesn’t matter under the Constitution.
But you’re claiming it does- as a “disqualification” under Amend 20.
Am I wrong?
First, let me apologize for mixing my threads. I cross-posted this 20th amendment post from another thread, and it was in that thread that I began with the statement that the election was done with no recourse. You weren't in that other thread and would not have seen my original post.
The popular vote is a national vote concept, an accumulation of 50 state votes. This thread was about reinstatement, and the thread I originally posted in was about the Georgia audit. It was in the context of a state revoking its certification that I introduced the idea of using the 20th amendment "failure to qualify" argument as a beginning of a strategy to reinstate the true winner.
The difference is that it isn't a challenge to the "popular vote," but a targeted challenge to only those states where internal audits uncovered proof of results-changing fraud, such as 30,000 fake mail-in ballots printed on different paper stock with no folds and not tied in any way to a true voter.
If a state can show incontrovertible proof of a tainted election where the wrong candidate was certified due to the actions of bad-faith officials, is there a statute of limitations on that?
If enough states can meet that burden of proof and revoke their certifications such that the sitting President no longer qualifies, is that actionable or has the statute of limitations (about six weeks) passed and the crooks are rewarded for their crime and cover-up?
That's the question that I posed, and that's as far as the conversation has gotten so far.
-PJ