Someone ignorant of the numbers of ships involved in trade, what routes were profitable, and the amount of goods being transported via coastal ships and railroads might think that there is some valid conclusion somewhere in your question.
But of course you are not that ignorant.
Why don't you just disclose what you want to prove or disprove.
That the South did not pay the majority of the tariffs but in fact paid a small minority of the tariffs. Clear enough?