But I already DID, dear roamer_1. Imagine this scenario...Jesus preaches and teaches for three years to a populace that more than likely spoke Aramaic. He also taught in Hebrew to certain people as well as Greeks. Now, some years later, the Holy Spirit leads and inspires the writers of the sacred Scriptures to write down what Jesus said and did. In what language would they have done that? The one that most all the people spoke throughout the region of His influence - GREEK. That very well explains why some Hebrew "puns" were there. It also explains why certain words were "translated" right there in the passages. Go ahead and deny it all day long if you want it won't change the facts.
That also explains why there was an LXX before the First Advent of Christ. If all the Jews/Hebrews spoke Hebrew and Aramaic then why commission the "70" to translate the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek?
The problem with your scenario is the method with which Yeshua's words were recorded. Again, researching Hebrew discipleship would shed a lot of light on it for you. But then, you would have to admit to Hebrew literacy, understand the highly evolved education required in the process, and the massive efforts toward memorization and emulation of the Rabbi - Such things I think you will refuse to admit, because they are boldly against the normative Christian paradigm.
SOME Hebrew puns are not 'some'. There are many. and the nature of Hebrew puns is to lend more meaning to the phrase they are encountered in... necessarily a part of the composition.