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To: Errant; CynicalBear; editor-surveyor; RansomOttawa; boatbums; metmom; Iscool; redleghunter; ...
Has it ever occurred to you that the writers of the New Testament wrote in Greek to ensure a wide dissemination of the teachings of Christ and His Apostles and that they did the translating from the spoken Aramaic of Christ Jesus into Greek? Though Jesus taught the people in the language they spoke, when it came time to enscripturate those teachings, they wrote them in Greek as led by the Holy Spirit. This explains why there may be Hebrew/Aramaic idioms or puns that may or may not have been translated exactly into Greek. For example, when Jesus was in the Temple reading from Isaiah, he read it in Hebrew, obviously since that is what the scrolls were written in. But, when it came time to write this down, they wrote in Greek.

There is NO reason to presume a Hebrew/Aramaic autograph since no such fragments have turned up to prove it. Those who insist we have somehow lost the truth of God's word are really trying to cast doubt ON God's word and they should be dismissed based solely on that. Though heaven and earth will pass away, the word of God will NEVER pass away.

606 posted on 03/06/2014 2:18:40 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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To: boatbums
There is NO reason to presume a Hebrew/Aramaic autograph since no such fragments have turned up to prove it.

Yes there are plenty of reasons, but of course you refused to review it, so who's problem is that?

608 posted on 03/06/2014 2:23:32 PM PST by Errant (Surround yourself with intelligent and industrious people who help and support each other.)
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To: boatbums; Errant; CynicalBear; roamer_1; RansomOttawa; metmom; Iscool; redleghunter
>> “Has it ever occurred to you that the writers of the New Testament wrote in Greek to ensure a wide dissemination of the teachings of Christ...” <<

.
Solid evidence of your total lack of understanding of even the NT!

The NT was done in Hebrew because it was directed at the only people Yeshua was sent to: The Hebrew speaking lost sheep of the House of Israel.

Why does that not sink in? There was no reason for any other language at the time that it was written. Had it been written in Greek by some fool, it would have had to be translated to Hebrew before the people to whom it was written could read it.

Matthew 10:

[1] And when he had called unto him his twelve disciples, he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease.
[2] Now the names of the twelve apostles are these; The first, Simon, who is called Peter, and Andrew his brother; James the son of Zebedee, and John his brother;
[3] Philip, and Bartholomew; Thomas, and Matthew the publican; James the son of Alphaeus, and Lebbaeus, whose surname was Thaddaeus;
[4] Simon the Canaanite, and Judas Iscariot, who also betrayed him.
[5] These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
[6] But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
[7] And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand.

Matthew 15:

[24] But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.


Why is this so hard to grasp? - It's Bible 101 !!

.

614 posted on 03/06/2014 3:51:46 PM PST by editor-surveyor (Freepers: Not as smart as I'd hoped they'd be)
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To: boatbums
Has it ever occurred to you that the writers of the New Testament wrote in Greek to ensure a wide dissemination of the teachings of Christ and His Apostles and that they did the translating from the spoken Aramaic of Christ Jesus into Greek?

[etc.]

There is a superb essay in the first volume of the Expositor's Bible Commentary on this very subject: arguing that the political/demographic/cultural conditions of the time of Christ were just right for the coming of the Messiah and the spread of his gospel. Among the two examples cited: the Roman road system, which enabled rapid (for the day) travel between population centres; and the use of koine Greek as the lingua franca of the Empire, enabling nearly any of Caesar's subjects to hear and understand the Gospel.

Unfortunately, I don't have my book handy, and I can't tell from a table of contents listing which essay it was. I believe it is "Between the Testaments," by Harold Hoehner, but I'm not 100% certain of that.

Christianity was meant from the beginning to spread throughout the world. It would have made little sense for its chief documents to have been written either in Aramaic (the regional language of Palestine) nor Hebrew (which was basically limited to the synagogue). Certainly not when Alexander the Great had taken the trouble to unite the entire known world under the Greek banner!

649 posted on 03/06/2014 9:58:53 PM PST by RansomOttawa (tm)
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