So, what was your point?
“The papal bull Sublimus Dei of 1537, to which Spain was committed, also officially banned slavery, but it was rescinded a year after its promulgation. Therefore, the Spanish used other forms of coerced labor in their colonies, such as the Indian Reductions method, the encomienda system, repartimiento, and the mita.
After the issuing of the 1542 New Laws, the Spanish greatly restricted the power of the encomienda system. The statutes of 1573, within the “Ordinances Concerning Discoveries,” forbade certain kinds of coerced labor and regulated treatment of the local population. It required appointment of a “protector de indios”, an ecclesiastical representative who acted as the protector of the Indians and represented them in formal litigation. These laws however did not change very much the practice of encomienda and mita forced labor.
Later in the 16th century, in the viceroyalties of New Spain and Peru, thousends of Indigenous people they were forced to hard work as underground miners in the mines of Potosi, Guanajuato and Zacatecas.
The Spanish imported Africans as laborers to the Americas in 1502.[citation needed] They continued to import African slaves, generally buying them from British and Portuguese traders (the former also were transporting slaves to the West Indies and Americas.) The Spanish finally outlawed slavery in the 18th century in all colonies with the exceptions of Cuba and Puerto Rico. There it survived in a semi-legal state until being abolished in 1866 and 1863, respectively.”
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_the_Spanish_New_World_colonies
My point is, with you it's always the same. Who do I believe, the great oracle muawiyah or my own lying eyes?