You mean a US judge enforcing a choice of law and arbitration provisions in a private contract between two parties? If yes, that precedent had been established for decades, even centuries before this motion to enforce was granted.
If you're referring to another kind of precedent, then no. No other precedent has been established.
So .... can a Catholic arbitrator from the Holy Office of the Inquisition order a losing party in arbitration to the stake?
The court document specifically laid out the provisions based on Koranic law. My concern is.. will the next step be similar decisions to settle domestic disputes? I'm looking at this from the "camel's-nose-in-the-tent" context.