Correspondng to 1 Cor 15, Paul also says in 1 Thes 4:15-17 that the dead in Christ and those alive in Christ will rise (consecutively and cotemporaneously it would seem), the unsaved are specifically omitted, which sharply contrasts with only the dead standing at the white throne judgement, and your intrepretation of John 5:29.
1 Cor 15:52 and more specifically 1 Thes 4:15-17 at least reference how the physcially living and saved get raised. Nowhere in Rev 20 or John 5:29 is this mentioned, and there seems to be an intervening period (Daniel's 70th week - in whole or in part, plus the 1000 year millenium) that separates the raising of the saved to life from the raising of the dead to condemnation.
The 1000 year interval is clearly ruled out by John 5:28,29. "...for the hour cometh in which all that are in the tombs shall hear his voice and shall come forth..." The same thing is true of Matthew 25:31-33. There is no possibility of inserting 1000 years between the separation of the sheep and the goats.The same is true of Matthew 13:36-43 (notice that the wicked are raptured out of the kingdom).The same is true of II Thess. 1. Certainly I Thess 4:13-18 is the same event as II Thess 1:9,10 when the Lord "shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be marvelled at in all them that believed.The same is true of Rev. 11:17-18. All these texts make clear that the resurrection and judgment of believers and unbelievers is one and the same event.
I don't understand the exegetical integrity of literal interpretation when it keeps inserting "1000 years" into texts where it simply is not found.
The same is true of separating the 69th and 70th week of Daniel 9. An indefinite period of time between these two weeks is simply not in the text.
I would also point out that some biblical texts speak only to believers and their concerns while other texts clearly speak about both believers and unbelievers. I Thess 4:13-18 and I Cor 15:50-58 can readily be interpreted in the light of John 5:28-29 in refering to the "resurrection to life" of the believer. No need to insert words into the text that are not there.
May I ask you, on what basis do you insert 1000 years into John 5:28-29 when Jesus says this is all going to happen at the same time? On what basis do you insert 1000 years into all these other texts where the inspired, infallible word of God makes clear there is only one event where believer and unbeliever are raised and judged?