To: atrocious petrosius
Using logical fallacies does not establish anything as a “fact” in any way. The left uses logical fallacies endlessly. You just used another one in that last reply, argumentum ad lapidem. The end is an argument to try to delegitimize the state of Israel, to boot.
Opus?
45 posted on
08/21/2025 1:18:40 AM PDT by
Olog-hai
("No Republican, no matter how liberal, is going to woo a Democratic vote." -- Ronald Reagan, 1960)
To: Olog-hai
Using logical fallacies does not establish anything as a “fact” in any way. The left uses logical fallacies endlessly. You just used another one in that last reply, argumentum ad lapidem. Not at all. All I did was show that you did not prove the falsehood of any of my statements. Indeed, you did not even specify which of my statements were false. To recap:
- I provided census numbers to show that in 1947 the Arabs were in the majority. Is this what you hold is false? If so, on what basis?
- I showed that the League of Nations mandate to the British did not authorize the creation of a Jewish state in Palestine. Is this what you hold is false?
- I showed that the State of Israel not established by the British as the Mandatory power. It was established unilaterally by the Jewish authorities. Is this what you hold is false?
It is not enough for you to claim
argumentum ad verecundiam without specifying how it is applicable. For a start, to which point above are you applying it? Additionally, for it to be a fallacy it has to be shown that the authority has no basis for making the claim, that it is based on his authority alone. In the case of Della Pergola, show that his number are incorrect. Your denial of an Arab majority in 1948 is purely gratuitous and without basis.
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson