So there's some critical mass of people that allows an area to declare itself a separate country along with all of its inhabitants, whether they wanted to or not? What is that number? Surely you can't believe that. That would mean that it's only pure popularity that allows such actions, and not any principle of human or natural law.
If a wife wants to leave her husband, is it his right to force her back?
There are certain things we call "divorce laws" and "divorce courts" that regulate how marriages are ended, how property is divided, and who owes who what. So let's ask the question a different way: If a wife suddenly announces that half of the house (say, the whole first floor) is physically hers, that all your things in that part of the house are hers, and that she's hiring paid guns to protect it, do you have any recourse?
Well, Judging by the last election, I would say the number is around 52%.
Surely you can't believe that. That would mean that it's only pure popularity that allows such actions, and not any principle of human or natural law.
Popularity is based on the ability to enforce will. It is generally acknowledged that on average, one man is generally a match for another, and that equal numbers of men contesting with each other will leave the outcome as a matter of luck.
A majority skews the probabilities away from luck towards the will of the majority. By long history of agreement, it has been decided that a simple majority is sufficient to drastically change the nature of a society.
Numbers win the contest of wills, and it doesn't matter if the majority supports an evil position or not. Majorities elected both Reagan and Obama. It is indisputable that a majority will naturally tend to win a victory in combat, and so we agree to abide by a majority so as to avoid the consequences of a real test of wills.
There are certain things we call "divorce laws" and "divorce courts" that regulate how marriages are ended, how property is divided, and who owes who what.
Formalities which are inconsequential to this discussion.
So let's ask the question a different way: If a wife suddenly announces that half of the house (say, the whole first floor) is physically hers, that all your things in that part of the house are hers, and that she's hiring paid guns to protect it, do you have any recourse?
The flaw in your metaphor is that they ARE physically hers. They were hers before the marriage, and they should remain hers after the divorce.
Once again, does a man have a right to force his wife back against her will?