[rustbucket]

Eminent domain is the process used to acquire private property for public use. How can any government use eminent domain to seize the property of a foreign country?

Happens all the time. But not so much in the 19th century. The usual conditions are that it must be for a public purpose and compensation must be paid.

From your post 1126: Constitutionally they could not per Article I, Section 8, Clause 17.

Thanks for reminding me. Let's look at that part of the applicable constitution, the Constitution of the Confederate States of America, which says that the Confederate Congress shall have the power --:

(17) To exercise exclusive legislation, in all cases whatsoever, over such district (not exceeding ten miles square) as may, by cession of one or more States and the acceptance of Congress, become the seat of the Government of the Confederate States; and to exercise like authority over all places purchased by the consent of the Legislature of the State in which the same shall be, for the erection of forts, magazines, arsenals, dockyards, and other needful buildings; and

Seems to fit.

[Non-Sequitur]

Happens all the time. But not so much in the 19th century. The usual conditions are that it must be for a public purpose and compensation must be paid.

So how about some recent examples then?

Seems to fit.

Hardly. Sumter was not the property of the confederacy so they couldn't exercise control over it.