As i said previously, it really would be nice if you folks could, or would, actually READ the paper under discussion.
The following quoted directly from that paper:
"2.2 Government Consumption Spending
Government consumption is included in the FairTax base in order to put personal and government consumption expenditures on an equal footing."
I cannot help it that you, and a few others here, cannot grasp the great importance of doing that but most folks do so quite readily.
I cannot help it that you, and a few others here, cannot grasp the great importance of doing that but most folks do so quite readily.
It is true that I don't grasp the importance of putting government and personal consumption on an equal footing. In areas where government directly competes with the private sector, then the same tax rules should apply, however the government is not personal and much of government's activities are not designed to make a profit. Why, in instances where government provides services not-for-profit, should it it (and we) be taxed? Government employees will be taxed, just like the rest of us, when they spend.
What is the logic behind a church purchasing a stove tax free, for its soup kitchen that provides no cost meals to the poor, while charging the government a 30% tax on a tank?