[Right Wing Professor]

How are we able to conclude that age-specific death rates for the United States in the year 2000 after age 35 are the same for those living in the middle east several thousands of years ago?

Because there ha s been no substantial change in the metabolism or genetics of humans.

Death rates rise exponentially with age...sure. How do we know that the current exponential rate rise is the same as the rate rise in Adam's day?

In Adam's day it was likely far worse. I doubt anyone made it past 70.

Do you have any evidence that they are the same...or are you making an assumption

Yes, I do. Several human groups diverged from our line far longer ago than several thousand years. If we and there share the same characteristics, notably genetically-driven causes of mortality, then our common ancestor possessed the same characteristics.

[pby]

Unless...

Is it possible that a "genetic mutation" ocurred altering the characteristics, and the genetically-driven causes of mortality, from that of our ancestors (Adam)?

Maybe "environmental pressures" created a change in the population related to these characteristics?