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Theologian: Shared Communion With Protestants Would be Blasphemy and Sacrilege
National Catholic Register ^ | January 2, 2017 | Edward Pentin

Posted on 01/02/2017 4:25:11 AM PST by BlessedBeGod

...If the Church were to change its rules on shared Eucharistic Communion it would “go against Revelation and the Magisterium”, leading Christians to “commit blasphemy and sacrilege,” an Italian theologian has warned.

Drawing on the Church’s teaching based on Sacred Scripture and Tradition, Msgr. Nicola Bux, a former consulter to the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, stressed that non-Catholic Christians must have undertaken baptism and confirmation in the Catholic Church, and repented of grave sin through sacramental confession, in order to be able to receive Jesus in the Eucharist.

Msgr. Bux was responding to the Register about concerns that elements of the current pontificate might be sympathetic of a form of “open Communion” proposed by the German Protestant theologian, Jürgen Moltmann.

The concerns have arisen primarily due to the Holy Father’s own comments on Holy Communion and Lutherans, his apparent support for some remarried divorcees to receive Holy Communion, and how others have used his frequently repeated maxim about the Eucharist: that it is “not a prize for the perfect, but a powerful medicine and nourishment for the weak.”

The debate specifically over intercommunion with Christian denominations follows recent remarks by Cardinal Walter Kasper who, in a Dec. 10 interview with Avvenire, said he hopes Pope Francis’ next declaration will open the way for intercommunion with other denominations “in special cases.”

The German theologian said shared Eucharistic communion is just a matter of time, and that the Pope’s recent participation in the Reformation commemoration in Lund has given “a new thrust” to the “ecumenical process.”

Pope Francis has often expressed his admiration for Cardinal Kasper’s theology whose thinking has significantly influenced…the priorities of this pontificate, particularly on the Eucharist.

For Moltmann, Holy Communion is “the Lord's supper, not something organized by a church or a denomination”...

(Excerpt) Read more at ncregister.com ...


TOPICS: Catholic; Current Events; Ecumenism; Theology
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To: af_vet_1981
What a seque for the idea of Sola Scriptura and which Scriptura and whose translation(s) ...

Watch it!

You'll snap necks in this sudden steering away from the topic at hand.

621 posted on 01/14/2017 3:55:49 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: boatbums
...and NOT something that was expected to be doctrinally binding upon females for perpetuity.

It sure WAS!

You can read what was required in the Catholic letter; found in Acts 15!!


Oh... Wait...

622 posted on 01/14/2017 3:57:38 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: boatbums
I NEVER get to wear my London Fog jacket anymore!

Oh quit whining and wear it ANYWAY!

623 posted on 01/14/2017 3:58:46 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: MHGinTN
That one SHOULD leave a mark ...but don’t hold your breath.

We don't talk much about marks any more...

Ecclesia abhorrent a sanguine ("the Church abhors the shedding of blood," Council of Tours, 1163)
 
 
Look!  A squirrel!!   http://www.catholicbridge.com/catholic/inquisition.php

624 posted on 01/14/2017 4:22:21 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: Repent and Believe

Your reply at 370 came WAY before my 562


625 posted on 01/14/2017 4:27:51 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: boatbums

Cry me a river.

Wanna trade?


626 posted on 01/14/2017 5:31:17 AM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: daniel1212

NO,m not familiar with them, but that’s good to know what Catholicism teaches.


627 posted on 01/14/2017 5:38:38 AM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: Repent and Believe; boatbums
Matthew 23: 8-10 But you are not to be called rabbi, for you have one teacher, and you are all brothers.And call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven.Neither be called instructors, for you have one instructor, the Christ.

Jesus commanded his disciples to not to address others by that title.

It could not be clearer or more clearly stated.

If some Catholic calls priests *Father*, they are disobeying Jesus.

NO ambiguity there, at all.

628 posted on 01/14/2017 5:45:09 AM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: Repent and Believe; boatbums

In the days when men wore robes, same as women.

Try again.


629 posted on 01/14/2017 5:45:56 AM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: Repent and Believe; Alex Murphy; bkaycee; boatbums; CynicalBear; daniel1212; dragonblustar; ...

So by what or whose authority to you sit in judgment of your pope or the hierarchy of the Catholic church?

And by what or whose authority do you make judgments that they are wrong and not *real* Catholics, or *true* popes?

Who gave you permission to do that and by what standard do you make your judgments and condemnation?

What kind of spiritual education and training do you have to qualify you to sit in judgment of others like that and determine that THEY are wrong and YOU are right?


630 posted on 01/14/2017 5:50:13 AM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: daniel1212

First point: I was speaking about what I would do to evangelize to a close loved one. I was trying to make this question real and everyday. Being real, I’d say that the Catholic Church has said that the 2 primary requirements for salvation that Protestants are missing, are Eucharist and Reconciliation. (We both require Baptism for example, and hold so many similar moral truths.) Look, its teachings focus on RISK; it’s certainly possible (and it goes without saying - desired!) that all the baptized are saved. It’s the risk, which is why I tried to write about the situation of trying to “save” (sorry, evangelize to) a close loved one - tried to stay out of theory (where being risky is fine).

Second point: With the language of an academic, you just restated my main point - The Church points to Scripture as its basis for its beliefs, whether or not you agree with that basis. The Church is also clear that is IS fallible on many issues, INCLUDING the Eucharist, by asserting the humble doctrine of Mystery. Although Mystery is a difficult concept for our prideful, scientific, post-Cartesian culture to grasp, I am sure that you and the many, many disparate Protestant sects do also say that you recognize where theological explanations must be imperfect, at best.

This last point applies to you earlier posts to me, though I apologize for not having time to read all of it yet. My quick takeaway from part of that is this question to you:
* Do you know what form God takes now in our material world?


631 posted on 01/14/2017 6:50:19 AM PST by ReaganGeneration2
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To: daniel1212
Why do you mean "for some reason as if it did not patently explain at length what they good reason was?!

What? Why do i spend so much time explaining to you that neither your source nor the KJV necessarily means that that the text fully corresponds word for word to the original language, while my source validated that it did?

Because as said and SHOWED it can, as in Job. 34:10 (in which 10 Hebrews words end up as 26 in the English, at least 9 of which are unnecessary) in addition to many more examples i could provide.

Once again, i never said it did as regards Gn. 3:15, but since it does in the English example i provided, thus i wanted to find a source that would precisely show me what each word was in the Hebrews and its meaning, and so render the English with that distinction.

Then what's with alleging me engaging in "somwhat of a red herring against the Jews and their English translation?" You wrongly have me against the Jews, whether you admit it or not.

As was mine, but with convenient pop up definitions of each word, and convenient distinctions btwn supplied words and those transliterated from the original languages. As said but ignored.

And thus, as accuracy is important, being able to see what the Hebrew means and supplied words in the English is superior to non-Hebrew readers. Case closed!


You asserted my source, Mechon Mamre (who are "the Jews and their English translation"), "can easily mislead those who cannot read Hebrew from thinking certain word[s] are in the Hebrew which are not." I have not dealt with the Italics argument for quite some time, and of course it has nothing to do with the original text in question; hence it is a red herring. It is an esoteric complaint and not relevant to my original post about "the woman" (הָאִשָּׁה) from the Mechon Mamre Hebrew source.

Now, as for the Italics argument, it is the correct translation that counts, unless of course one is really able to read and comprehend the language source, in which case any translation is irrelevant. I posted Mechon Mamre because I was reading the original language source. The English translation was extraneous to me because the evidence was in the Hebrew.

Not even The University of Michigan King James Archive, nor the ubiquitous BibleGateWay use the italics to illuminate what words were added to make a word for word potential mistranslation become a more accurate and useable translation.
632 posted on 01/14/2017 6:50:39 AM PST by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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To: daniel1212
You have to know better than that the issue is a mere difference in fonts, and which is of no significance! The differences in fonts is the very thing that enables one to see that such are not in the original language, and the differences in language does not marginalize that, as shown. That is why scholars prefer word for word type translations, versus "dynamic equivalence" and examine the original language texts.

Scholars read the original languages.

Why can't you simply admit that your source is not as helpful and accurate as what i provided, instead of desperately having me being against the Jews and blithely dismissing the importance of finding supplied words versus what is in the original language texts? Give it up!

A simple Hebrew source for Genesis was sufficient to show that there was a definite article in the Hebrew text הָאִשָּׁה (the woman). There is nothing wrong with your enhanced QBible source. I just did not need it. Thanks for the link to it.
633 posted on 01/14/2017 7:03:49 AM PST by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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To: boatbums

Thanks for that post. All good.

I was trying to ask this question much earlier in this thread:
* Do Protestants believe that receiving the Catholic Eucharist is an evil act?

Why not allow us think of it as a “helper” (if non-distracting from the goal), and not attack us for it.

I admit I haven’t had the time yet to read all the answers. Some apparently think we’re evil for drinking human blood, despite the plausible and literal Scripture such as John 6, and the fact they themselves don’t even believe it’s blood.


634 posted on 01/14/2017 7:14:47 AM PST by ReaganGeneration2
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To: af_vet_1981
You have to know better than that the issue is a mere difference in fonts, and which is of no significance! The differences in fonts is the very thing that enables one to see that such are not in the original language, and the differences in language does not marginalize that, as shown. That is why scholars prefer word for word type translations, versus "dynamic equivalence" and examine the original language texts. Scholars read the original languages.

Which is why they prefer word for word type translations.

A simple Hebrew source for Genesis was sufficient to show that there was a definite article in the Hebrew text הָאִשָּׁה (the woman).

For the last time no, it was NOT!!! Your simple source simply does not show (for those who cannot read Hebrew) what is in the Hebrew word for word in the English translation, since it contains supplied words in the latter without distinction, as showed! Thus my recourse to a translation which actually established that the "the" was there. Why can't you simply accept that?

There is nothing wrong with your enhanced QBible source. I just did not need it. Thanks for the link to it.

So you claim to be fluent in Hebrew? Regardless, the issue was not you.

635 posted on 01/14/2017 8:33:35 AM PST by daniel1212 ( Turn to the Lord Jesus as a damned and destitute sinner+ trust Him to save you, then follow Him!)
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To: metmom

“...If some Catholic calls priests *Father*...”

You mean like Saint Paul used the term in 1 CORINTHIANS - Chapter 4? Did Saint Paul misinterpret Jesus words in St. Matthew Chapter 23 or are you? I want to hear your take on Saint Paul’s use of the term.

From Haydock on 1 CORINTHIANS - Chapter 4 we read:
Ver. 14-17. I write not. St. Paul here insinuates to the Corinthians, that they ought to blush with shame for neglecting the apostles, who had suffered so many hardships for them, to follow after teachers void of honour, and to glory in being called the disciples of such men. (Estius) -— I admonish you as my dearest children, of what is for your good, and I may take this liberty, as being your spiritual father in Christ, by whom you were first made Christians. Be ye followers of me, as I also am of Christ: follow the doctrine of Christ, which I follow, and taught you. Timothy, my beloved son in the Lord, whom I send to you, will put you in mind of what I teach, and of what I practise. (Witham)


636 posted on 01/14/2017 8:48:47 AM PST by Repent and Believe (The Son of Man, when He cometh, shall He find, think you, faith on earth? Jesus Christ (Luke 18:8))
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To: Repent and Believe

I can say accurately, and honestly, that when fishing for market fish, I have done likewise.

Otherwise, there is no record of that I know of, of Peter having used anything but nets. The same nets which were mentioned at one juncture, that he was then asked to leave. Seems to me that upon later occasions, he went back again to using nets to literally (not figuratively) catch (literal, not figurative) fish. As far as I can tell, it was no sin for him to have done so, I suppose I should here add.

Can you show me where it may be written that the apostle Peter used a hook? While you're at it, could you explain further what you were possibly intending to mean when alleging that Peter "used a hook"?

The way your having said "Peter used a HOOK", came across to me, in context with the rest of the conversation here (including comments & replies of among others) as if you possibly intended to suggest that it is ok nowadays to [figuratively speaking, of course] use a lariat, and force conversion upon whoever could be roped into it. (?)

Or else -- using 'a hook', dangling bait that would appear attractive to a fish -- but-- holds a secret weapon, a fully intended trickery, even --- is that the right way to be a 'fisher of men'?

We have no such tradition, not one coming from Christ's own apostles.

637 posted on 01/14/2017 9:24:25 AM PST by BlueDragon (on a 10 dollar horse and a 40 dollar saddle I'm goin' up the trail with them longhorn cattle)
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To: daniel1212
For the last time no, it was NOT!!! Your simple source simply does not show (for those who cannot read Hebrew) what is in the Hebrew word for word in the English translation, since it contains supplied words in the latter without distinction, as showed! Thus my recourse to a translation which actually established that the "the" was there. Why can't you simply accept that?

If one cannot read Hebrew, perhaps it is wiser to defer to those who can. I was simply correcting the error in the post 467 which read In the Hebrew there is no “the” in “enmity between you and the woman” , and all I need is the Hebrew text which I read.
638 posted on 01/14/2017 9:41:48 AM PST by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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To: metmom; boatbums

“In the days when men wore robes, same as women.
Try again.”

OK, I’ll try again:

How did Deut. 22:5 apply in A.D. 1917, in the days when men wore pants and women wore dresses?

As it reads:
“A woman shall not be clothed with man’s apparel, neither shall a man use woman’s apparel; for he that doeth these things is abominable before God.” (Deut.22:5)


639 posted on 01/14/2017 9:51:19 AM PST by Repent and Believe (The Son of Man, when He cometh, shall He find, think you, faith on earth? Jesus Christ (Luke 18:8))
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To: metmom; Alex Murphy; bkaycee; boatbums; CynicalBear; daniel1212; dragonblustar

“...by what or whose authority do you make judgments that they are wrong and not *real* Catholics, or *true* popes?...”

By the authority indicated in the comments of Pope Innocent III and Saint Robert Bellarmine below.

Pope Innocent III’s teaching:

“The pope should not flatter himself about his power, nor should he rashly glory in his honour and high estate, because the less he is judged by man, the more he is judged by God. Still the less can the Roman Pontiff glory, because he can be judged by men, or rather, can be shown to be already judged, if for example he should wither away into heresy, because he who does not believe is already judged. In such a case it should be said of him: ‘If salt should lose its savour, it is good for nothing but to be cast out and trampled under foot by men.’” [7]

Notice that he qualifies his statement by saying “or rather, can be shown to be already judged.”

A pope who is already judged is not pope, that’s why he can be judged. Bellarmine said just that:

Therefore, the true opinion is the fifth, according to which the Pope who is manifestly a heretic ceases by himself to be Pope and head, in the same way as he ceases to be a Christian and a member of the body of the Church; and for this reason he can be judged and punished by the Church.

When does Bellarmine say the pope loses office: This is the opinion of all the ancient Fathers, who teach that manifest heretics immediately lose all jurisdiction… NOT AFTER WARNINGS OR DECLARATION BECAUSE heretics already before being excommunicated are outside the Church and deprived of all jurisdiction. For they have already been condemned by their own sentence, as the Apostle teaches (Tit. 3:10-11), that is, they have been cut off from the body of the Church without excommunication, as St. Jerome affirms…
(De Romano Pontifici 30)

Full article:
https://stevensperay.wordpress.com/2016/01/23/st-robert-bellarmine-and-john-of-st-thomas-versus-john-salza-and-robert-siscoe/


640 posted on 01/14/2017 10:18:21 AM PST by Repent and Believe (The Son of Man, when He cometh, shall He find, think you, faith on earth? Jesus Christ (Luke 18:8))
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