Posted on 10/03/2014 2:33:43 PM PDT by NYer
It suits my purpose.
My meaning was perfectly clear.
And so is mine.
Right after this reply!
Sure they were...
“Y’all sure rely on them when you need to prove Jews “prayed for the dead” and gather up what you can to support Purgatory.”
And you think that is the same thing? Let me help you understand how they are NOT the same thing. II Maccabees, as an inspired book (it doesn’t matter if you believe it), or even as an uninspired book, recorded what Jews believed and it in chapter 12. That’s it. We’re not relying on them. It’s just there. And it was all written before the time of Christ on earth.
When it comes to the canon, that was all AFTER Christ came. No Jew had any authority to decide anything.
“It reminds me of the Martin Luther fixation so often displayed here. One day you love him and quote him and the next he is despised and the blame for all that is wrong in the world today. Go figure!”
No. Again, when Luther gets something right (i.e. agrees with historic, orthodox Christianity) we cite him because it puts an onus on his fellow Protestants to explain why they believe him on some doctrines but not others. With Jews and the canon it is entirely different. We don’t look to any Jew after Jesus’ time to define anything for us in regard to Christian belief or practice. We don’t look to Luther to define Christian belief or practice either.
My intent was clear to all whose hearts are not drenched in Satanic malice.
“I understand. I left you speechless.”
No, as I said, “His words are authoritative but do not agree with your apparent misunderstanding. Your mistake is a common enough one.”
Someone in need of a new nappy?
And the many teams since these discoveries has verified and backed up every one of them; right?
The Deuterocanons were known to Sts. Justine Martyr, Hippolytus and Irenaeus, and to Origen, who counted them among other canonical books. See details in The canon of the Old Testament in the Church of the first three centuries
I suspect all this "scholarship" is just another Protestant attempt to rewrite history.
That the composition of the Septuagint varied in the early copies does not prove anything about its overall content. In my previous post I cite reasons to believe that proto-nicean Fathers knew of the deteurocanonical books and often considered them equally inspired.
That st. Paul was a Jew also proves nothing: the Septuagint was created for the purposes of Jews. That he wrote in beautiful Greek shows that he would have no aversion to the use of Greek, even if he personally did not need a Greek translation.
The fact remains that St. Paul did not find it necessary to qualify his inspired remark about “all scripture” in any way, yet surely he was familiar of the existence of the Septuagint.
Discuss the issues all you want, but do not make it personal.
“Your own complaints about forum moderation came close on the heels of one particular individual being warned...and the moderator (as it appeared to me) telegraphing a “enough is enough” sort of thing.”
I don’t believe I saw that.
“All of which made me it seem to me the raising of “the religion moderator is unfair to Catholics” meme was partially in attempt to manipulate the babysitter, uh, I mean forum moderator.”
Manipulate, as opposed to persuade. Your choice of the one word over the other betrays much.
“It seems you may have found a few of those previously non-existent scintillas.”
Nope.
“I see progress!”
The fang and claw protestants see much that does not exist.
You are confusing divine inspiration with canonicity. St. Paul named a certain body of literature inspired, and he said "all", so "all", literally, that was accessible to Jewish youth like Timothy is inspired. The question of canon is, of course the business of the Church and she, lead by the Holy Ghost, defined the Canon to be what it is. There is much outside of the Canon of Scripture that is inspired; someone here mentioned 1 Esdra, for example, and I can point to the works of the medieval saints as well. The Holy Ghost leads the Church today and forever, and so the volume of inspired Catholic works continues even today.
All accurate translations are inspired product of the Holy Church, even though variations may be found in them. Protestant obfuscatory passages are generally not, even though the Protestant translations in part contain correct text that approximates the original.
In Genesis 3:15 they vary in the pronoun, yet the meaning is correct either way, for Neither Jesus nor His blessed mother crushed the Serpent literally, yet both are connected to the victory: Mary as Christ’s mother and Christ - directly. Note that Moses put Mary in the context of the Protoevangelium even though the pronoun should be masculine.
That is simply your fantasy that has nothing to do with history, nor with the quality of Paul's prose.
Thank you. I wish I had your patience.
Those who argue and insist we call Jesus by his correct name, Yeshua, are concerning themselves with trivial, non-essential matters. English speakers call him Jesus, with a "J" that sounds like "gee." Portuguese speakers call him Jesus, but with a "J" that sounds like "sjeh," and Spanish speakers call him Jesus, with a "J" that sounds like "hey." Which one of these pronunciations is the correct one? All of them, of course, in their own language.
The Bible doesn't give preeminence to one language (or translation) over another. We are not commanded to call upon the name of the Lord in Hebrew only. Acts 2:21 says, "But everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." God knows who calls upon his name, whether they do so in English, Portuguese, Spanish, or Hebrew. He is still the same Lord and Savior.
Jesus will totally crush Satan when He returns. Mary has no part in that.
>>Note that Moses put Mary in the context of the Protoevangelium even though the pronoun should be masculine.<<
No he didn't and the pronoun is masculine because it is referencing Jesus alone. Including Mary is a corruption by the Catholic Church to bolster the apostacy of Mariology.
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