Posted on 09/21/2014 1:37:08 PM PDT by Laissez-faire capitalist
A.) If no one alive today was there when He spoke, how then do we know which Jesus quoted from - the Masoretic Text or the Septuagint?
B.) If he did quote from the Masoretic Text, and His quotes, parables, etcetera, were later translated into Greek in the middle of the first century AD - independently of the Septuagint - how would we know given that none of these Original Manuscripts have survived. And though this translation work would undoubtedly differ slightly from the Septuagint, none have survived. Since no Original Manuscripts - showing one way or the other - have survived until today, there is no way to know which way or the other.
C.) If He did quote from the 1.) Masoretic Text and those who did translation work in the first century AD decided to later use 2.) the Septuagint instead of doing independent translation work (since the Septuagint gave a Greek rendering), how could we know since no Original Manuscripts have survived to show that they decided to go the route of #2?
How could we possibly know if the surviving Greek fragments come from the A or B camp?
I will just sit back and simply peruse the answers given; I look forward to them all. God bless!
Romans 3:2.
How do we know if the modern Torah is the same as the Torah read by David, Solomon, Daniel, Ezekiel and etc since we don’t have copies of the Torah from when they lived?
Why would a laissez-faire capitalist care ?
Interesting question. But would it really matter that much?
I suggest you do a bit of research on the principles of textual criticism. You will be amazed at what we have and how we know and how it is put together.
The New Testament Documents: Are They Reliable? by F. F. Bruce. History and Christanity, John Warwick Montgomery. Try those for a start.
What we have today in the Greek is what God had preserved for us. Do those who claim there were “better versions” in some other languages think God failed in His promise to preserve His word for all generations?
How much is included in the Dead Sea Scrolls?
bttt
"The MT was primarily copied, edited and distributed by a group of Jews known as the Masoretes between the 7th and 10th centuries CE. Though the consonants differ little from the text generally accepted in the early 2nd century (and also differ little from some Qumran texts that are even older), it has numerous differences of both greater and lesser significance when compared to (extant 4th century) manuscripts of the Septuagint, a Greek translation (made in the 3rd to 2nd centuries BCE) of the Hebrew Scriptures that was in popular use in Egypt and Israel (and that is often quoted in the New Testament, especially by the Apostle Paul).[4]"
The Septuagint
/ˈsɛptjuːəˌdʒɪnt/, /ˈsɛptuːəˌdʒɪnt/, /ˌsɛpˈtuːədʒɪnt/, /ˈsɛptʃuːəˌdʒɪnt/, from the Latin word septuaginta (meaning seventy), is a translation of the Hebrew Bible and some related texts into Koine Greek. The title and its Roman numeral acronym LXX refer to the legendary seventy Jewish scholars who completed the translation as early as the late 2nd century BCE. As the primary Greek translation of the Old Testament, it is also called the Greek Old Testament (Ἡ μετάφρασις τῶν Ἑβδομήκοντα). This translation is quoted in the New Testament,[1] particularly in the Pauline epistles,[2]
I has no idea. Thank you.
Most of the educated Jews living in Israel at that time spoke Greek as well as Aramaic, since Greek was the common language of the conquered lands, and there were always Jews from foreign parts visiting Israel for religious purposes. And of course some of the Jews could speak as well as read Hebrew.
I think it seems likely that Jesus may have delivered his sayings in several different languages, depending on his audience or other circumstances.
Working to sew doubts regarding any aspect of Christianity and Salvation does matter ...
But Lazzie Faire wants “Original documents” not copies, thus I’m using the same standard. This site is about probable accuracy of Torah’s but NOT proof that we have Torah’s from 1000BC to compare today’s torah’s too.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_Jesus
Josephus wrote:
I have also taken a great deal of pains to obtain the learning of the Greeks, and understand the elements of the Greek language, although I have so long accustomed myself to speak our own tongue, that I cannot pronounce Greek with sufficient exactness; for our nation does not encourage those that learn the languages of many nations, and so adorn their discourses with the smoothness of their periods; because they look upon this sort of accomplishment as common, not only to all sorts of free-men, but to as many of the servants as please to learn them. But they give him the testimony of being a wise man who is fully acquainted with our laws, and is able to interpret their meaning; on which account, as there have been many who have done their endeavors with great patience to obtain this learning, there have yet hardly been so many as two or three that have succeeded therein, who were immediately well rewarded for their pains.
—Antiquities of Jews XX, XI
Well based on their protocol in making copies...I’d say it’s as close as you will get to the originals....
Unless we find the Ark of the Covenant anytime soon...
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