Posted on 08/27/2019 1:58:22 PM PDT by ebb tide
Although it is now frequently claimed that the traditional Latin Mass (TLM) was never abrogated (totally abolished) following the Second Vatican Council, this position is squarely at odds not only with the lived experience of several generations of Catholics, but with the rapid and near total disappearance of the TLM within a brief period of time.
For many years after 1970, there was considerable confusion about the legal and sacramental status of the TLM following the publication of the new Missale Romanum of 1970. Throughout that time period, Pope Paul VI granted multiple permissions to specific people (like Padre Pio and St. Josemaría Escrivá), dioceses, and even nations (the U.K.) to continue to use the TLM despite the universal transition to the new missal.
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Since Catholicism insists Mary had to be sinless, how would sin be passed to Jesus if she were not declared sinless by Catholicism?
So much hate bound up in a person who would say what you have spewed. A root of bitterness is ALWAYS the effect of such internalized hate.
How ould sin in MAry be passed to Jesus, since sin is not a physical substance?
How would a non-physical, soulish thing be passed to Jesus in Mary’s womb?
Since you have absolutely no proof that Mary contributed any chromosomes to the forming of Jesus, and since the implanted embryonic human is separated from the host body by the placental barrier, can you tell me how sin could be passed from the blessed Mary to the gestating Jesus?
Go away, Ebb. I’m done with your idiocy.
Since there is absolutely no proof that Mary contributed any chromosomes to the forming of Jesus, and since the implanted embryonic human is separated from the host body by the placental barrier, can you tell me how sin could be passed from the blessed Mary to the gestating Jesus?
Why does Catholicism, especially Roman Catholicism insist blessed Mary had to be sinless to be the Mother of Jesus?
Since there is absolutely no proof that Mary contributed any chromosomes to the forming of Jesus, and since the implanted embryonic human is separated from the host body by the placental barrier, can you tell me how sin could be passed from the blessed Mary to the gestating Jesus?
Do you have absolute proof that she did not?
When the dogma of raising MAry to a status which the Bible / the Word of God does not support or identify, the authors of that 'tradition' did not have the knowledge of embryology we have today. It was not conceivable to them that an embryo could be created outside of the woman's body then introduced to her body for gestational support. This is another way of saying they assumed facts not in evidence. ONLY if Jesus has half of His chromosomes from Amry would it be necessary that she be without sin in the conception of Jesus.
The term 'conception' is used in two distinctly different way outside of Embruology. It is sued to ondicate the fusing of chromosomal complement from the father and the mother (thus called fusion of haploids) to form a zygotic aged human embryo. The other way the term is used is to signify the implantation of a morulla aged human in the uterine lining of the host mother. The zygote age is a single new life cell. The morulla age is of many dozens of cells of the embryo, prior to division into the placenta building cells and the body for life in the air world cells. But we have only the indication, from what the Angel told Mary, that a morulla aged human was to be implanted or conceived in her.
The tradition formers assumed both uses of the term 'conceive' and therefore attributed to MAry details not in evidence. So I ask, how would sin have been passed from mary to Jesus during gestational life?
There used to be monthly indult Masses nearby, but the monsignor who officiated them passed away, and the church building itself has been mothballed.
Forgot to give you the passage: Luke 1:31 Behold thou shalt conceive in thy womb and shalt bring forth a son: and thou shalt call his name Jesus. Douay-Rheims Bible.
pingaling
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