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Federal court: no liability for PA judge who made up criminal charge
FoxNews.com ^ | Apr 13, 2015 | Rachel Martin

Posted on 04/13/2015 7:09:37 AM PDT by KeyLargo

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To: KeyLargo

Hillary ain’t winning.....thank God!


21 posted on 04/13/2015 7:58:16 AM PDT by C. Edmund Wright (www.FireKarlRove.com NOW)
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To: Gritty

“As I recall, Stalin had “absolute civil immunity” too. We all know how well that worked out.”

How Many People Did Joseph Stalin Kill?
By Palash Ghosh @Gooch700 on March 05 2013 8:55 AM EST

Joseph Stalin, who died 60 years ago in Moscow, was a small man — no more than 5-foot-4. The abused son of a poor, alcoholic Georgian cobbler, Josef Vissarionovich Djughashvili (the future Stalin) also had a withered arm, a clubbed foot and a face scarred by small pox, but he stood very tall as one of history’s most prolific killers.

Stalin’s extremely brutal 30-year rule as absolute ruler of the Soviet Union featured so many atrocities, including purges, expulsions, forced displacements, imprisonment in labor camps, manufactured famines, torture and good old-fashioned acts of mass murder and massacres (not to mention World War II) that the complete toll of bloodshed will likely never be known.

An amoral psychopath and paranoid with a gangster’s mentality, Stalin eliminated anyone and everyone who was a threat to his power – including (and especially) former allies. He had absolutely no regard for the sanctity of human life.

But how many people is he responsible for killing?

In February 1989, two years before the fall of the Soviet Union, a research paper by Georgian historian Roy Aleksandrovich Medvedev published in the weekly tabloid Argumenti i Fakti estimated that the death toll directly attributable to Stalin’s rule amounted to some 20 million lives (on top of the estimated 20 million Soviet troops and civilians who perished in the Second World War), for a total tally of 40 million.

http://www.ibtimes.com/how-many-people-did-joseph-stalin-kill-1111789


22 posted on 04/13/2015 8:00:32 AM PDT by KeyLargo
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To: C. Edmund Wright
"Hillary ain’t winning.....thank God!"

Oh really?

Don't count on it.

23 posted on 04/13/2015 8:05:03 AM PDT by KeyLargo
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To: KeyLargo

I almost never lose a prediction to the conventional wisdom. She ain’t winning. Count on it. Remember where you heard it.


24 posted on 04/13/2015 8:30:32 AM PDT by C. Edmund Wright (www.FireKarlRove.com NOW)
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To: KeyLargo

So local judges now have an absolute license to act maliciously?


25 posted on 04/13/2015 8:32:46 AM PDT by Buckeye McFrog
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To: null and void

This is unbelievable. I’m pretty sure judges have been disrobed before. This three-judge panel should be disrobed too.


26 posted on 04/13/2015 8:47:55 AM PDT by Rusty0604
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To: Rusty0604

Speaking as a lawyer. . .

This result was entirely predictable.

There are some pretty strong policy reasons for the rule that judges should not be held liable for the damages caused by their decisions. Basically, because if they were, no one in his right mind would ever agree to be a judge.

I do think we could carve out some (fairly narrow) exceptions to this rule. One would be for cases like this one, where no reasonable person in the judge’s shoes could believe the judge has jurisdiction.

Another would be for when judges (especially appellate court judges) decide cases based on issues that haven’t been raised and briefed by the parties. This has happened to me quite a few times: I win all the issues that are raised to the court, but the court, without warning, goes off and decides the case based on some issue no one has raised or briefed. Of course, when it does this, it almost invariably gets the resolution of this issue wrong.

Under my proposal, if an appellate court wants to address an issue that hasn’t been briefed to it, it could do so—but it would have to raise the issue and give the parties a fair chance to address it first. In the state where I practice, the Court rules provide the appellate courts with this option, but it is very rarely used. To make sure this option is used, the Court should be held liable or subject to a penalty if it decides a case on an issue that wasn’t briefed (and if it is only subject to a penalty, whether or not it got the issue right or wrong).

One of my big peeves as a lawyer.


27 posted on 04/13/2015 9:10:00 AM PDT by TheConservator ("I spent my life trying not to be careless. Women and children can be careless, but not men.")
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To: Hardens Hollow; null and void; laplata; Gluteus Maximus; Salvavida; Foundahardheadedwoman; ...

CWII Spark Ping — So, what does a guy have to do to get tarred, feathered, and “rode out on a rail” around here?


28 posted on 04/13/2015 9:21:02 AM PDT by OneWingedShark (Q: Why am I here? A: To do Justly, to love mercy, and to walk humbly with my God.)
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To: C. Edmund Wright

I pray you are right.


29 posted on 04/13/2015 9:24:57 AM PDT by yellowdoghunter (Welcome to Obamastan! (Mrs. Yellowdoghunter))
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To: TheConservator
Speaking as a lawyer…
This result was entirely predictable.
There are some pretty strong policy reasons for the rule that judges should not be held liable for the damages caused by their decisions.

Question:
Why should judges be above the law?

In particular, the following law seems to only be relevant if applied to those occupying a governmental office, to include judges:

18 U.S. Code § 242 - Deprivation of rights under color of law
Whoever, under color of any law, statute, ordinance, regulation, or custom, willfully subjects any person in any State, Territory, Commonwealth, Possession, or District to the deprivation of any rights, privileges, or immunities secured or protected by the Constitution or laws of the United States, or to different punishments, pains, or penalties, on account of such person being an alien, or by reason of his color, or race, than are prescribed for the punishment of citizens, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than one year, or both; and if bodily injury results from the acts committed in violation of this section or if such acts include the use, attempted use, or threatened use of a dangerous weapon, explosives, or fire, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than ten years, or both; and if death results from the acts committed in violation of this section or if such acts include kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap, aggravated sexual abuse, or an attempt to commit aggravated sexual abuse, or an attempt to kill, shall be fined under this title, or imprisoned for any term of years or for life, or both, or may be sentenced to death.
Moreover, does not this opinion make the following of none effect:
42 U.S. Code § 1983 - Civil action for deprivation of rights
Every person who, under color of any statute, ordinance, regulation, custom, or usage, of any State or Territory or the District of Columbia, subjects, or causes to be subjected, any citizen of the United States or other person within the jurisdiction thereof to the deprivation of any rights, privileges, or immunities secured by the Constitution and laws, shall be liable to the party injured in an action at law, suit in equity, or other proper proceeding for redress, except that in any action brought against a judicial officer for an act or omission taken in such officer’s judicial capacity, injunctive relief shall not be granted unless a declaratory decree was violated or declaratory relief was unavailable. For the purposes of this section, any Act of Congress applicable exclusively to the District of Columbia shall be considered to be a statute of the District of Columbia.

30 posted on 04/13/2015 9:39:55 AM PDT by OneWingedShark (Q: Why am I here? A: To do Justly, to love mercy, and to walk humbly with my God.)
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To: KeyLargo

so much for the law applying equally to all


31 posted on 04/13/2015 9:52:54 AM PDT by sten (fighting tyranny never goes out of style)
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To: null and void

Seems they have written a get out of jail free card for themselves and retroactively made legal judicial misconduct.


32 posted on 04/13/2015 9:56:33 AM PDT by Darksheare (Those who support liberal "Republicans" summarily support every action by same.)
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To: OneWingedShark

People to actually do it.


33 posted on 04/13/2015 11:04:09 AM PDT by ctdonath2 (Si vis pacem, para bellum.)
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To: thorvaldr

One might also argue it’s a violation of the patents of nobility clause.


34 posted on 04/13/2015 12:38:56 PM PDT by pierrem15 ("Massacrez-les, car le seigneur connait les siens")
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To: KeyLargo

here’s a question. what would the current administration do with that same absolute power? anything different except achieve higher numbers?


35 posted on 04/13/2015 1:14:12 PM PDT by huldah1776
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To: hoosierham

To be clear: judges to have the ability to enforce orders when someone’s found in contempt, and that can sometimes include jail. The problem is that this judge used an odd, inapplicable statute, to basically act as collection agency for the judgment of attorney’s fees.

If he’d used the general indirect criminal contempt statute, 42 Pa CS 4136, the fine would be limited to $100, jail 15 days, or both. (Buried in here: http://www.legis.state.pa.us/cfdocs/legis/LI/consCheck.cfm?txtType=HTM&ttl=42&div=0&chpt=41.)

There’s also a specific statute under the domestic support law, 23 Pa CS 4345. (Buried in here: http://www.legis.state.pa.us/cfdocs/legis/LI/consCheck.cfm?txtType=HTM&ttl=23&div=0&chpt=43&sctn=45&subsctn=0.) Under that law, contempt is punishable by up to 6 months in jail, a fine of up to $1,000, or probation of up to a year (with “purge conditions” required, by which folks can get out of jail).

BUT. That’s specifically to enforce support orders - not pay-these-attorney’s-fees orders. (Creepily, this is the statute the Superior Court relied on, in a related case, to say it was ok for the judge to jail her.)

And, for further weirdness, every time she made a payment at the court, the clerk would note it as a “fine” or (fine). And they squeezed over $9,000 of “fines” out of her, under threat of more jail.


36 posted on 04/13/2015 4:09:16 PM PDT by Rachel Martin
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To: null and void

the pogroms just keep coming


37 posted on 04/13/2015 6:31:00 PM PDT by Nifster
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